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1 year agoAsking “Why would you do X?” implies heavily that had they not done X, the situation wouldn’t have happened. It is victim blaming.
Asking “Why would you do X?” implies heavily that had they not done X, the situation wouldn’t have happened. It is victim blaming.
Is it actually incorrect? I don’t think it’s necessarily wrong, but it just sounds bizarre or Shakespearean if you use it when it’s not an auxiliary verb.
“I’ve no need for that.” is a perfectly cromulent sentence.